Statutory Examination for Membership Examination subject The horse Paper 1 Length of examination 3 hours Date Monday 27 April 2015 Time 9.15 am to 12.15 pm This examination question paper is divided into two sections Section A and Section B. Each section carries 50% of the total marks available for this examination paper and candidates are advised to allocate their time accordingly. Candidates should answer THREE questions from Section A and should attempt ALL questions in Section B. Candidates should read each question carefully and answer the question that has been asked. Examiners cannot award marks for information that the question does not ask for. Section A tests understanding and problem-solving skills. Section B tests factual knowledge. Bracketed percentages within questions show the maximum proportion of marks that can be awarded for the candidate s answer to that part or sub-section of the question. Start each answer on a new answer sheet and write the question number in the margin of each sheet used. Continues overleaf
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Section A Answer either (a) or (b) from each of the 3 pairs of questions 1a. You are managing an outbreak of respiratory disease at a 20 horse livery yard. Ten days ago one horse developed a purulent nasal discharge and swollen submandibular lymph nodes, which have now ruptured and are discharging pus. You suspect strangles. The owner reports that several other horses are now depressed, have anorexia and some have nasal discharge. Describe the initial biosecurity precautions that should be put in place to reduce the risk of disease transmission within the yard and to reduce the risk of disease spread to other yards. (25%) What diagnostic testing should be carried out to confirm your clinical suspicion that this is a strangles outbreak? Justify your selection of tests and samples. (20%) What are the complications that might develop as a result of strangles infection in the horse? List the clinical signs for each complication and describe how long after infection each complication is likely to occur. (30%) The yard owner is concerned that some infected horses may become strangles carriers once they have recovered. Explain what is meant by the term strangles carrier and describe how carriers can be identified and treated at the end of the outbreak. (25%) 1b. You are called to examine a 10-year-old crossbred horse that is stabled and has been losing weight for several weeks. The owner reports that the horse is dull and depressed. The owner has four other horses and you notice that the hay being fed to all the horses contains the plant ragwort. Describe the mechanism of action of the toxin in ragwort plants and explain how it causes the clinical signs characteristic of ragwort poisoning. (30%) List the diagnostic tests that should be carried out on this horse to confirm that this is ragwort poisoning. Justify each test that you list, including a description of how the test results assist making a diagnosis. (40%) What recommendations would you make to the owner with regard to the other horses on these premises? (20%) What is the prognosis for affected horses? (10%) Statutory membership examination 2015 Page 3 of 7
2a. What do you understand by the term nephrosplenic entrapment as a cause of colic in the horse? (20%) Describe the findings that would lead you to make this specific diagnosis in a horse with colic. (40%) Describe the different options for treatment of the condition and discuss their relative merits. (30%) How might you prevent the condition from recurring? (10%) 2b. What are stress fractures and under what circumstances do they occur in horses? (20%) What methods are available to diagnose stress fractures and what are their relative merits and limitations? (30%) Whereabouts, specifically, do stress fractures most commonly occur in the following bones in Thoroughbred racehorses? (40%) Third metacarpal Pelvis Tibia Humerus Describe how you would manage a stress fracture in one of those locations. (10%) 3a. A client who owns a 20-year-old pony has asked for advice about pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID) (equine Cushing s disease) having read an article in an equestrian magazine. List the clinical signs associated with this disease and indicate which clinical signs are most commonly observed. (30%) Explain how the pathophysiology of PPID causes the clinical signs observed in affected horses. (40%) List the diagnostic tests that can be carried out to confirm a diagnosis. Justify each test that you list, including a description of how the test results assist making a diagnosis. (20%) Which drug is licensed in the UK for managing this disease? What is the mechanism of action of this drug? (10%) Question 3b is overleaf Statutory membership examination 2015 Page 4 of 7
3b. Describe the clinical signs of maxillary sinusitis in the horse. (20%) If maxillary sinusitis is secondary to dental disease describe what you might find on: al examination of the horse? (10%) Radiographic examination of the head? (20%) What other techniques might be helpful in assessing a case of maxillary sinusitis? (30%) Describe how you would manage a case of maxillary sinusitis secondary to a tooth root infection in a horse. (20%) Section B Answer all 10 questions 1. The prevalence of the disease atypical myopathy appears to be increasing in Western Europe and is a significant cause of concern to the equine industry. Which toxin is believed to be the cause of atypical myopathy and what is the source of the toxin? (20%) List the clinical signs of the disease and the diagnostic tests that can be carried out to confirm a diagnosis. (50%) What management advice should be given to owners to reduce the risk of disease? (30%) 2. Corneal ulcers are common in horses due to the lateral position of their eyes and the opportunity for injury from the environment. List the clinical signs typically observed in a horse with a corneal ulcer. (30%) Describe the clinical examination that should be carried out to assess a corneal ulcer and determine appropriate treatment. (40%) Explain how a simple corneal ulcer should be managed, justifying each of the treatments you suggest. (30%) 3. You are called to a Thoroughbred stud in early April to examine a mare that has not shown signs of behavioural oestrus in that year. Describe how you would investigate the cause of behavioural anoestrus in a mare, including the clinical examination that should be carried out and any diagnostic tests that could be done to assist with making a diagnosis. (40%) Describe the management and therapeutic measures you would recommend. (40%) Question 3 continues overleaf Statutory membership examination 2015 Page 5 of 7
What advice would you give the owner to increase the likelihood of his mares becoming cyclical early in the year to facilitate early season breeding? (20%) 4. Cyathostominosis is becoming a significant problem in the equine industry. Summarise the lifecycle of the cyathostomins, highlighting any differences in the lifecycle between the grazing season (spring, summer and autumn) and the winter months. (30%) List the clinical signs associated with acute larval cyathostominosis and explain how a diagnosis can be confirmed. (40%) What are the treatment options and challenges for managing a case of acute larval cyathostominosis? (30%) 5. Melanoma is the second most prevalent skin tumour in the horse. List the three predilection sites for melanoma and indicate which anatomical structures are commonly affected at each site. (30%) Describe the investigations that could be carried out to confirm a diagnosis and assess the clinical features and significance of melanoma at each of the sites you have suggested. (40%) What treatment options are there for melanoma? Justify each treatment you suggest. (30%) 6. What is an ethmoid haematoma? (20%) What clinical signs are commonly associated with this condition? (20%) What methods are available to confirm such a diagnosis? (30%) List the potential treatment options. (30%) 7. Describe the clinical signs of upward fixation of the patella in the horse. (30%) How would you manage a recurrent case Conservatively? (20%) Surgically? (20%) What complications can follow surgical treatment? (30%) Statutory membership examination 2015 Page 6 of 7
8. Draw a diagram of an X-ray tube. (40%) Describe what changes in the tube during an exposure if you vary the following parameters on the control panel of the machine: kv (20%) ma (20%) time (20%) 9. List the different synovial cavities in the hock of the horse. (20%) Which of these usually communicate with each other? (20%) Describe the usual needle penetration site to inject each synovial cavity. (60%) 10. What is meant by open as opposed to closed castration? (40%) What are the relative merits and drawbacks of each of these techniques? (60%) Statutory membership examination 2015 Page 7 of 7
Statutory Examination for Membership Examination subject Companion animals Paper 2 Length of examination 3 hours Date Monday 27 April 2015 Time 2pm to 5pm This examination question paper is divided into two sections Section A and Section B. Each section carries 50% of the total marks available for this examination paper and candidates are advised to allocate their time accordingly. Candidates should answer THREE questions from Section A and should attempt ALL questions in Section B. Candidates should read each question carefully and answer the question that has been asked. Examiners cannot award marks for information that the question does not ask for. Section A tests understanding and problem-solving skills. Section B tests factual knowledge. Bracketed percentages within questions show the maximum proportion of marks that can be awarded for the candidate s answer to that part or sub-section of the question. Start each answer on a new answer sheet and write the question number in the margin of each sheet used. Continues overleaf
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Section A Answer either (a) or (b) from each of the 3 pairs of questions 1a. There have been major advances in our understanding of sino-nasal and nasal tumours in dogs and cats. Describe, in detail, the clinical features of nasal tumours, their diagnosis and options for treatment. In your answer identify any differences between dogs and cats. 1b. You have been presented with a 7-year-old neutered male German shepherd with a history of chronic diarrhoea. Discuss in detail how you would investigate this case in General Practice in the UK, what diagnostic tests you could undertake and what treatment options might be available? What additional benefit might be had in referring such a case? 2a. Outline the anatomical structures that have to be sectioned (cut) to complete a fore-quarter amputation in a cat. (Fore-quarter amputation involves the removal of the entire limb including the scapula). What surgical methods would you use to complete the section of each type of tissue? (60%) How would you repair the surgical site, and what suture material would be suitable? (20%) What peri-operative and intra-operative analgesic strategies could be applied to this procedure? (20%) 2b. A 25 kg crossbred dog is presented to you with a wound involving a complete loss of skin approximately 5 cm in diameter on the lateral aspect of the pelvic limb above the stifle. The owner explains the wound was sustained in a road traffic accident. The wound is heavily contaminated with dirt and plant material from the road-side. The dog can bear weight on the leg and radiographs confirm there is no underlying orthopaedic injury. Without giving details of the anaesthetic, describe the therapy you would use to manage the wound, assuming you decide not to surgically close the wound in the first 48 hours. (60%) If you were to decide to close the wound surgically after the initial treatment how would you decide the time to make the closure and how would you cover the area of skin loss? (40%) 2015 statutory membership examination Page 3 of 5
3a. There is concern in the UK about the emergence of infectious diseases. What are considered the emerging infectious diseases of concern for the dog population in the UK and is such concern well founded or unnecessarily alarmist? (20%) For each of the diseases you mention, what are the main clinical signs and how are the diseases diagnosed? (60%) What strategies are being employed to reduce the risk of introduction of these diseases and comment how you think control measures could be improved? (20%) 3b. A dog is presented with recurrent episodes of head shaking and aural discharge. The dog has had two courses of topical treatment for its ears that have not resolved the signs. The dog is easy to examine in general, but becomes aggressive when its ears are gently palpated. How would you evaluate the patient s ears? (60%) What are the available treatments and how would you decide between them? (40%) Section B Answer all 10 questions 1. What are the commonly used cardiovascular drugs in companion animal medicine, and what are their modes of action? 2. Outline a treatment and management plan for a confirmed case of diabetes mellitus (DM) in a dog. What are the potential problems of poor control of DM? 3. What is the underlying cause of atopic dermatitis, how is it diagnosed and what treatment options are available? 4. How is peripheral vestibular disease in the dog diagnosed? 5. Name two (2) common toxins affecting dogs or cats, and in each case describe the clinical signs and the recommended treatment. 2015 statutory membership examination Page 4 of 5
6. Outline your diagnostic tests (50%) and treatment options (50%) for a dog that presents with ocular discharge, photophobia and blepharospasm related to a visible defect on the cornea. 7. Outline the radiographic investigations that might be applied to a one-year-old Rottweiler bitch with urinary incontinence. 8. An adult cat is brought into your surgery within one hour of being hit by a car. It is unable to stand on its pelvic limbs. A conscious radiograph reveals that the cat has pelvic fractures. Which 5 other body systems should be investigated in the immediate evaluation of the patient, and what methods should be used? (20% per system) 9. List the observations you can make, without the aid of electronic equipment, to monitor a patient under general anaesthesia. Indicate what information each type of observation gives you about the patient. (10% for each observation) 10. An eight-year-old Labrador dog is presented at your surgery. The owner tells you that the dog has a considerable build up of calculus on the teeth, which you can see yourself on simple visual examination. You agree with the owner to sedate the dog for a full dental examination. List and justify at least 5 areas and/or techniques of examination that should be undertaken to establish the extent of the dog s dental disease. (20% for each area) 2015 statutory membership examination Page 5 of 5
Statutory Examination for Membership Examination subject Production animals Paper 3 Length of examination 3 hours Date Tuesday 28 April 2015 Time 9.15 am to 12.15 pm This examination question paper is divided into two sections Section A and Section B. Each section carries 50% of the total marks available for this examination paper and candidates are advised to allocate their time accordingly. Candidates should answer THREE questions from Section A and should attempt ALL questions in Section B. Candidates should read each question carefully and answer the question that has been asked. Examiners cannot award marks for information that the question does not ask for. Section A tests understanding and problem-solving skills. Section B tests factual knowledge. Bracketed percentages within questions show the maximum proportion of marks that can be awarded for the candidate s answer to that part or sub-section of the question. Start each answer on a new answer sheet and write the question number in the margin of each sheet used. Continues overleaf
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Section A Answer either (a) or (b) from each of the 3 pairs of questions 1a. A UK dairy herd with 100 Holstein Friesian cows has an average 305 day yield of 7,000 litres per cow. The herd calves all year round. In the last 6 weeks there have been 8 cases of abortion, with cows aborting between 150 days and 260 days of gestation. There is one cow which aborted this morning and the foetus and placenta are still available. Comment on the size of the herd. For the UK is this a small, medium or large sized herd? (10%) What is meant by the term average 305 day yield? How does a yield of 7,000 litres per cow compare to what is typical in the UK? Is this a low, medium or high yielding herd? (20%) When presented with this problem of recent abortions describe a logical diagnostic approach that you would take to determine the cause of the problem? (20%) What legal requirements need to be followed in this situation in the UK? (15%) List 3 possible common causes of the type of abortion seen on this farm. (20%) For one of the conditions you list, briefly discuss the aetiology and control of the disease. (15%) 1b. A UK dairy herd with 100 Holstein Friesian cows has an average 305 day yield of 7,000 litres per cow. The herd calves all year round. You are called out in December because there has been an outbreak of diarrhoea in the adult herd which started 3 days previously. Many of the cows have diarrhoea, milk yields are reduced and feed intakes are down. About half of the herd has been affected by the time you visit the farm and several now appear to be recovering without treatment. Comment on the size of the herd. For the UK is this a small, medium or large sized herd? (10%) What is meant by the term average 305 day yield? How does a yield of 7,000 litres per cow compare to what is typical in the UK? Is this a low, medium or high yielding herd? (20%) When presented with this problem of widespread diarrhoea in the adult milking herd, describe a logical diagnostic approach that you would take to determine the cause of the problem. (20%) List 3 possible causes of the problem seen on this farm. (20%) Are any of the 3 conditions you have listed likely to cause problems to human health? If so state which they are. How are risks to public health from cow s milk generally minimised in the UK? (15%) For one of the conditions you list, briefly discuss the aetiology and control of the disease. (15%) 2015 statutory membership examination Page 3 of 6
2a. Explain the concept of refugia (parasites in refuge, not exposed to anthelmintic drug treatment) with reference to selection for anthelmintic resistance in nematode parasites of small ruminants. (50%) Explain how the principles of refugia management can be exploited with the aim of achieving more sustainable anthelmintic drug based roundworm control in small ruminants. (50%) 2b. List the diseases and constraints to production that might be introduced to a UK sheep flock with purchased rams or breeding ewes. (30%) Explain the principles underlying strategies that can be adopted to reduce the risk of introduction of these problems, or minimise their potential economic impact. (40%) Briefly describe the relevance of these strategies to the management of the problems that have been listed. (30%) 3a. When visiting a UK dairy farm in February you are presented with a sick cow. She has been calved 5 days, she has stopped eating concentrate feed and her milk yield has reduced significantly. After taking a history and performing a thorough clinical examination you diagnose a left displaced abomasum (LDA). What is meant by the term LDA? (15%) How may the condition be diagnosed on clinical examination? (20%) As part of the clinical examination of this cow she was found to have raised levels of ketones in her urine. Why is this commonly found in cases of LDA? (15%) What are the most likely risk factors for this condition and why is it most frequently diagnosed shortly after calving? (25%) Briefly describe one method for correcting this condition. If you describe a surgical technique make sure you briefly state the anaesthesia and restraint used. (25%) 3b. Describe and explain the circumstances under which plant poisoning can arise in sheep and cattle. (50%) Lambs are known to become ill thrifty when grazed for prolonged periods on Brassica crops (for example forage rape or kale). List the poisonous principles involved and briefly summarise how they cause production loss. (50%) 2015 statutory membership examination Page 4 of 6
Section B Answer all 10 questions 1. A 9-month-old calf is diagnosed as being persistently infected (PI) with bovine viral diarrhoea virus (BVD). Describe how and when this calf would have been infected with BVD virus. (80%) What action should be taken with this calf? (20%) 2. Describe the common clinical signs of Listeriosis in cattle. (50%) What action should be taken with an adult cow showing clinical signs of this disease? (50%) 3. What clinical signs are normally associated with iodine deficiency in cattle and sheep? (70%) How can these conditions be prevented? (30%) 4. Write short notes on the aetiology (30%) and treatment (70%) of squamous cell carcinoma of the third eyelid (nictitating membrane) in cattle. 5. Streptococcus dysgalactiae can be associated with mastitis in dairy cows. How is infection with this organism commonly acquired by cattle and how can it be controlled on a herd basis? 6. Outline the options available for the treatment of ewes suffering from pregnancy toxaemia. (30%) Summarise the practicality and treatment success for each option. (30%) Describe your approach to the management of a problem whereby a diagnosis of pregnancy toxaemia has been made in 6 ewes from a flock of 100. (40%) 7. Explain how you would decide whether or not a Caesarian section is indicated in a parturient beef suckler cow with relative foetal oversize. (30%) Describe your approach to the Caesarian operation and postoperative care in a beef suckler cow. (70%) 8. Chewing lice (Bovicola bovis) infestations are commonplace during the winter months in housed beef cattle herds. Describe your approach to the management of affected herds, and to the preventive management of infestations. 2015 statutory membership examination Page 5 of 6
9. Describe the clinical signs that are commonly associated with copper toxicity in sheep, and explain how the diagnosis might be supported or confirmed. (60%) Describe the principles involved in the prevention of copper toxicity in sheep. (40%) 10. Draw a diagram showing the life cycle of the cattle lungworm, Dictyocaulus viviparus. (40%) Outline a programme for the prevention and management of lungworm in a spring calving beef suckler herd. (60%) 2015 statutory membership examination Page 6 of 6
Statutory Examination for Membership Examination subject Veterinary public health Paper 4 Length of examination 3 hours Date Tuesday 28 April 2015 Time 2.00 pm to 5.00 pm This examination question paper is divided into two sections Section A and Section B. Each section carries 50% of the total marks available for this examination paper and candidates are advised to allocate their time accordingly. Candidates should answer THREE questions from Section A and should attempt ALL questions in Section B. Candidates should read each question carefully and answer the question that has been asked. Examiners cannot award marks for information that the question does not ask for. Section A tests understanding and problem-solving skills. Section B tests factual knowledge. Bracketed percentages within questions show the maximum proportion of marks that can be awarded for the candidate s answer to that part or sub-section of the question. Start each answer on a new answer sheet and write the question number in the margin of each sheet used. Continues overleaf
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Section A Answer either (a) or (b) from each of the 3 pairs of questions 1a. Under current legislation slaughterhouses in the United Kingdom producing carcase meat must use the Principles of Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP). List the seven principles of HACCP. (20%) Explain briefly how HACCP achieves the aims of food safety stating who is responsible for HACCP. (20%) Using the example of a slaughterhouse killing beef cattle, consider the various steps in the process from the delivery of live animals to final carcase storage and describe how HACCP is likely to be implemented. (60%) 1b. Discuss the roles that ante-mortem inspection and post-mortem inspection play in the enhancement of food safety, animal health and animal welfare. Use both red and white meat examples to illustrate your answer. 2a. Identify the subjects and describe the key points that you would include in a welfare training course for personnel handling and killing animals at a large pig slaughterhouse. 2b. Consider the scenario in which a 3-deck sheep lorry arrives at an abattoir with 250 sheep from the local livestock market. When it unloads it is clear that over 50% of the sheep are lame and some are reluctant to move. What are the possible causes of the lameness? (20%) What actions, based on legislation, would you expect the Official Veterinarian to take? (80%) 3a. Discuss the zoonotic and non-zoonotic risks presented to employees and members of the public in the companion animal veterinary practice environment. (50%) Describe a risk management approach for one example zoonosis. (30%) What legal responsibilities does the practice owner have in respect of these risks? (20%) Question 3b is overleaf 2015 statutory membership examination Page 3 of 5
3b. For each of the following zoonotic disease scenarios briefly describe the clinical signs found in animals, the risks of transmission to, and clinical signs in, humans. What advice would you give to the clients in each of the cases in terms of protecting human health? An outbreak of bovine tuberculosis on a dairy farm in Gloucestershire. (33.3%) A 120 cow dairy herd where three recently calved heifers were diagnosed with Salmonella Typhimurium. (33.3%) An elderly client with a duck farm where ornithosis has been diagnosed. (33.3%) Section B Answer all 10 questions 1. What are the arrangements for the surveillance of Brucella abortus infection of cattle in the United Kingdom? 2. What is the cause of ringworm? Describe the clinical signs, treatment and control in animals and humans. 3. List the conditions that are likely to cause splenic enlargement in pigs identified at postmortem meat inspection. For two of these conditions describe what you are likely to find on inspection of the carcase and other offal, and what would the likely judgement be regarding fitness for human consumption? 4. Identify five zoonotic pathogens that may occur in un-pasteurised milk with significant potential for transmission to humans, and describe the control procedures that can reduce the zoonotic disease risk. 5. Briefly list the factors involved in the emergence (re-emergence) of novel zoonotic infections. 6. List the diseases of pigs that are notifiable in the United Kingdom. For each of these diseases state one prominent and typical clinical sign beyond dullness, depression, or mortality. 7. Outline the causes, consequences, and corrective actions on detecting pale soft exudative meat in a pig carcase in a cutting plant. 2015 statutory membership examination Page 4 of 5
8. Identify ten points that contribute to the responsible use of antimicrobials on livestock farms, in the context of minimising antimicrobial resistance. 9. Why are animal by-products controlled by legislation? List the categories of animal byproduct. For each category, give two examples of a typical by-product and explain how disposal of material in each category should be carried out. 10. What are the consequences of human infection by Toxoplamsa gondii? State two important routes by which human exposure might occur. For each route, give three examples of advice, or other precautions, that might help prevent human infection. 2015 statutory membership examination Page 5 of 5